In papers submitted to a US federal court, the Mexican government argues that the law is unconstitutional and would damage bilateral relations.
Regardless of the issue argued, how can country A sue country B because country B has a locality with a law that violates the constitution of country B?
Let’s try this again: is it OK for the USA to go to Mexico and sue the state of Sonora because Sonora has a law that violates Mexico’s constitution? Is it any of our business?
Notice we are not talking about Mexico suing the USA because the USA is violating some kind of UN charter or some international treaty. No, they are trying to sue a state of the USA because they see it as violating USA law.
It makes my head spin.